Absolutamente con Ud es conforme. La idea bueno, mantengo.
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Mathematics Stack Exchange is a question and answer site for people studying math at any level and professionals in related fields. It only takes a minute to sign up. Connect and share knowledge within a single location that is structured and easy to search. So if we have P, we must have Q because it is contained within P.
This is my intuitive understanding of the implication. On the other hand, if we do not have Q, by my example above it would not imply that we do not have P, since Q is only one of the things contained within P. So why would showing that when we don't have Q we don't have P prove the implication? In short, what understanding of the material implication is needed for proof by contrapositive to make intuitive sense? I understand the truth tables are the same, but that does not provide intuition in my opinion.
With the correct set-containment formulation, it is easy to see the contrapositive is equivalent. One situation where this set containment idea is realized is in probability of events. Edit: I should mention that your setup can still show that the contrapositive is equivalent see JMoravitz's answer. Again, the lighter shade is the area used in both. Thus, this is an impossibility.
The true statement of the contrapositive isn't qualified with a truth value, in the way I've done above, but this is a way to think about it. I think this comes down to what it means for one proposition to "contain" another proposition. There are two ways of thinking about this, and both ways of thinking are valid, but they are incompatible. Let's talk about predicates instead of propositions, because predicates work better with "option 2" below.
We could think of a predicate as "containing" or "being made of" all of the conditions or criteria that the predicate entails—all of the things that must be true in order for the predicate to hold. For example, some of the criteria that the predicate "it is sugar" entails are "it is a chemical substance", "it is a solid at room temperature", and "it can be tasted". This understanding meshes with "option 1" here. The predicate "it is sugar" can be said to "contain" the predicate "it is sweet", because all of the "criteria for sweetness" are also necessary conditions for being sugar.
Yes, it's true that if you have something that isn't sweet, then that thing has failed only one what is a logically equivalent statement the criteria for being sugar. But one is all that it takes: if something has failed even just one criterion for being sugar, then that thing cannot be sugar. We could think of a predicate as "containing" or "being made of" all of the things that the predicate is true for. So the predicate "it is sugar" is made of all things that are sugar, and the predicate "it is sweet" is made of all things that are sweet.
Notice that now the containment relationship is "backwards". You're asking for intuitive sense, and the other answers are great at the logical proofs, but for intuition I like concrete examples. By comparison, if I don't have tomatoes I don't know whether I went to the store or not. I may have gone and just not bought them. Same with having gone to the store -- may or may not have bought tomatoes.
I don't think you can necessarily say p contains q without differentiation between all set versus any set. The former suggests p contains q, while the latter suggests q contains p. Consider sets p and q, and operators all and any, where all is true if all the values within a set are true and any is true if any define standard deviation with formula and example the values within a set are true.
Draw the diagrams for each of these, and you'll see that while your premise is 1 above, the following statement below is really about a different case 2 above hence your confusion I believe. This is not correct if we are under premise what is a logically equivalent statement. What is correct is that by not having all of qyou do not have all of p. Sign up to join this community. The best answers are voted up and rise to the top. Stack Overflow for Teams — Start collaborating and sharing organizational knowledge.
Create a free Team Why Teams? Learn more. Why does proof by contrapositive make intuitive sense? Ask Question. Asked 5 years, 11 months ago. Modified 4 months ago. Viewed 3k times. IgnorantCuriosity IgnorantCuriosity 1, 3 3 gold badges 15 15 silver badges 25 25 bronze badges. You either have P or you don't. If you have P then you must also have Q. But you don't. So it is impossible you have have P. So you don't have P, do you?
But it's a required thing P. If I have P, I absolutely must at risk of the universe imploding also have Q. But you want to know a secret? What is a logically equivalent statement don't have Q. How is that possible? We were told if I had P then I absolutely positive must have Q. But I don't have Q. How can that possibly be possible? Show 2 more comments. Sorted by: Reset to default. Highest score default Date modified newest first Date created oldest first.
Community Bot 1. The difference between your answer and the one provided by JMoravitz brought another question to mind: is P supposed to contain Q or is Q supposed to contain P? Is there any standard for this, or does it what is a logically equivalent statement with the details of the material implication? Add a comment. NNOX Apps 1. JMoravitz JMoravitz I have a follow what is a linear system that has no solution question; if we show that not having Q leads to not having P, it could imply that P contains Q, but it could it not also imply that Q contains P?
Intuitively, it seems that both cases would allow you to show that not having Q leads to not having P. So how are we able to conclude with certainty that P contains Q just by showing that not having Q leads to not having P? It isn't just "it could imply it" it is that it does imply it. The explanation is the same with just a relabeling of the spaces. I personally still find the most convincing argument the one involving truth tables. Show 3 more comments.
Andres Mejia Andres Mejia Option 1: Predicates "contain" all of the criteria that they entail We could think of a predicate as "containing" or "being made of" all of the conditions or criteria that the predicate entails—all of what is a logically equivalent statement things that must what is a logically equivalent statement true in order for the predicate to hold.
However, the next part of your question doesn't mesh with "option 1" at all: On the other hand, if we do not have Q, by my example above it would not imply that we do not have P, since Q is only one of the things contained within P. Option 2: Predicates "contain" all of the things that they hold true for We could think of a predicate as "containing" or "being made of" all of the things what is a logically equivalent statement the predicate is true for.
Let's look at the second what is a logically equivalent statement of your question under this interpretation: On the other hand, if we do not have Q, by my example above it would not imply that we do not have P, since Q is only one of the things contained within P. Tanner Swett Tanner Swett 8, 28 28 silver what is a logically equivalent statement 51 51 bronze badges.
I'd like to ask you the same question I asked JMoravitz above. Causal inference definition sociology we show that not having Q leads to not having P, it could imply that P contains Q, but it could it can corn flakes be healthy also imply that Q contains What is a logically equivalent statement To answer the first question in your comment here, no, only P contains Q or Q contains P.
If I have tomatoes, I must have gone to the store. P By comparison, if I don't have tomatoes I don't know whether What does aa meeting mean went to the store what is market structure and types not.
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